By Nafiz M. Ahmed
It's not difficult to ascribe intent when an individual uses force against another and that is the intent of his action. Can it be said, however, that an individual uses force against another when that individual does not intend that his action result in the application of force against another? The U.S. Supreme Court has recently answered that question "yes" in Voisine v. United States, 2016 DJDAR 6311 (June 27, 2016).<...
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